Impossible Exponential Diophantine Equation

#hsc-maths#proofs#hard

Diophantine equations that mix exponentials and polynomials can seem intimidating, but the key to proving no integer solution exists often lies in a clever modular reduction. In this post, we work through an HSC Maths Extension 2–style problem, using the Binomial Theorem and congruences to narrow down the possibilities to just a handful of values, then checking each. Along the way, you'll see how a single modular insight can turn an impossible-looking equation into a routine verification.

Problem Statement

Explain why there is no integer nn such that (n+1)4179n40=2(n+1)^{41} - 79n^{40} = 2.


Hints

Attempt the proof independently first. Focus on the key theorem, algebraic transformation, or contradiction setup that links the hypothesis to the target conclusion.


Solutions

Proof by Modular Analysis and Case Checking

Before diving into heavy algebra, we quickly test the simplest integer — zero — just to rule it out. After that, we'll move to a more powerful modular technique for non‑zero nn.

Step 1: Test n=0n = 0

If n=0n = 0:

(0+1)4179(0)40=10=12(0+1)^{41} - 79(0)^{40} = 1 - 0 = 1 \neq 2

So n=0n = 0 is not a solution.

Step 2: Analyze for n0n \neq 0 using modular arithmetic

Now that we know nn is non‑zero, we can safely work modulo nn. This will allow us to cancel large powers of nn and leave a very simple congruence.

For n0n \neq 0, consider the equation modulo nn:

By the Binomial Theorem:

(n+1)41=k=041(41k)nk141k(n+1)^{41} = \sum_{k=0}^{41} \binom{41}{k} n^k \cdot 1^{41-k}

All terms contain nn except the last term (k=0k=0):

(n+1)411(modn)(n+1)^{41} \equiv 1 \pmod{n}

The term 79n40-79n^{40} is clearly divisible by nn:

79n400(modn)-79n^{40} \equiv 0 \pmod{n}

Therefore:

(n+1)4179n402(modn)102(modn)12(modn)\begin{aligned} (n+1)^{41} - 79n^{40} &\equiv 2 \pmod{n} \\ 1 - 0 &\equiv 2 \pmod{n} \\ 1 &\equiv 2 \pmod{n} \end{aligned}

This congruence points to a very limited set of possibilities for nn.

Step 3: Interpret the congruence

12(modn)1 \equiv 2 \pmod{n} means n(12)n \mid (1-2), so n(1)n \mid (-1).

Therefore n{1,1}n \in \{-1, 1\}.

Step 4: Test candidate values

With only two candidates left, we simply substitute them back into the original equation to verify.

For n=1n = 1:

(1+1)4179(1)40=24179=2,199,023,255,552792(1+1)^{41} - 79(1)^{40} = 2^{41} - 79 = 2,199,023,255,552 - 79 \neq 2

For n=1n = -1:

(1+1)4179(1)40=079(1)=792(-1+1)^{41} - 79(-1)^{40} = 0 - 79(1) = -79 \neq 2

Conclusion

All possible integer values of nn have been checked and none satisfy the equation.

Therefore, there is no integer nn such that (n+1)4179n40=2(n+1)^{41} - 79n^{40} = 2.


Takeaways

  • Modular Arithmetic Strategy: Working mod nn can dramatically constrain possible solutions
  • Binomial Expansion Mod nn: (n+1)k1(modn)(n+1)^k \equiv 1 \pmod{n} since all terms except constant contain nn
  • Divisor Analysis: 12(modn)1 \equiv 2 \pmod{n} means n(1)n \mid (-1), giving only n{1,1}n \in \{-1, 1\}
  • Exhaustive Checking: After constraining to finitely many cases, verify each directly

Further Readings

If you found this proof interesting, be sure to check out these relevant HSC booklets to sharpen your reasoning skills: HSC Proofs, HSC Vectors, HSC Last Resorts

Written by Vu Hung Nguyen

Mathematics Educator · LinkedIn · About